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CSCS Supervisor Mock Test

Construction Test > CSCS Supervisor Mock Test

This is a free CSCS Supervisor Mock Test. If your role on the construction site will be supervisory of nature, you will have to take the CITB Health, Safety and Environment touch screen test for managers to obtain your CSCS card. Supervisors will look to obtain a red card or a gold card.

The free Mock CSCS Test for Supervisors below has 50 test questions and you have 45 minutes to answer. The CSCS Supervisor pass mark is 46/50. Click the Begin Test button to start.

CSCS Supervisor Card Mock Test


You have 45 minutes to answer 50 multiple choice CSCS Mock Test questions for Managers and Professionals. You need to answer at least 46 out of 50 questions correctly to pass. Answers may be reviewed after each question or at the end of the test. Good luck!

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CSCS for Managers and Professionals

Free Managers and Professionals Mock Test 1

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There are more than 1000 practice questions for Managers and Professionals in these mock tests. All tests last for 45 minutes and have 50 questions which have been randomly selected from 19 categories.

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Supervisor Test Questions and Answers

List of questions in above test (quick view). Click question box to reveal correct answer.
1. What is the primary legislation for health and safety in the UK? Give ONE answer
A Approved codes of practice
B HSE guidance
C Health and safety law
D The Health and Safety At Work etc. Act
Correct Answer: D The Health and Safety At Work etc. Act
Explanation: All other regulations, codes, and guidance complement or build upon the The Health and Safety At Work etc. Act.
2. Which TWO of the following describe projects that are notifiable? Give TWO answers
A A project lasting 12 days with 15 workers
B A project lasting 35 working days with no more than 12 workers at any one time
C A project lasting 35 working days, with 25 workers
D A project that is 450 person days
E A project that is 510 person days
Correct Answer: C A project lasting 35 working days, with 25 workers, E A project that is 510 person days
Explanation: Projects are notifiable under two circumstances: when they exceed 30 working days in length and at any point involve more than 20 people working simultaneously; or, when the project takes longer than 500 person days.
3. Whose responsibility is it to put together the construction phase plan? Give ONE answer
A The Health and Safety Executive
B The client
C The contractor or principal contractor
D The designer or principal designer
Correct Answer: C The contractor or principal contractor
Explanation: The contractor, or principal contractor, is responsible for putting together the construction phase plan.
4. A company must have at least three things in place for health and safety management. Which THREE? Give THREE answers
A A grievance procedure
B Arrangements outlining duties of each role in the responsibility tree
C Medical insurance appropriate to each worker's position
D Monthly assessments by a Health and Safety Executive inspector
E Organisational structure with responsibility tree
F Policy statement for health and safety
Correct Answer: B Arrangements outlining duties of each role in the responsibility tree, E Organisational structure with responsibility tree, F Policy statement for health and safety
Explanation: Health and safety management policy requires that companies have a health and safety policy statement, along with an organisational structure and responsibility tree, with clear duties assigned to each position in the tree.
5. Risk assessments must identify hazards and necessary risk control measures. This alone is a qualitative risk assessment - what, in addition, does a semi-quantitative risk assessment do? Give ONE answer
A Assign a high, medium, or low label to residual risk
B Assign a numerical value to how likely and severe each risk might be
C Numerically rank the risks involved in the task
D Take specific measurements and reading to help assess the risk
Correct Answer: A Assign a high, medium, or low label to residual risk
Explanation: Semi-quantitative risk assessments also consider residual risks, and categorise them as either high, medium, or low.
6. Which TWO of the following are ways you might confirm that inductees have understood induction content? Give TWO answers
A Ask direct questions
B Ask if everyone has understood
C Issue a written test
D Issue them with a copy of all induction information
E Monitor the work of new inductees
Correct Answer: A Ask direct questions, C Issue a written test
Explanation: You should actively ensure inductees have understood the information. You might issue a written test, and if you are asking comprehension questions verbally you must ensure that you are specific and direct.
7. Which TWO of the following are the two main types of record taken by supervisors? Give TWO answers
A Pragmatic
B Proactive
C Reactive
D Spontaneous
E Systematic
Correct Answer: B Proactive, C Reactive
Explanation: Records are, broadly speaking, either proactive (e.g., machine inspection records), or reactive (e.g., accident investigation records).
8. How long MUST accident book record be kept? Give ONE answer
A 40 years after the final entry
B They must be destroyed once the project is completed
C Three months after the final entry
D Three years after the final entry
Correct Answer: D Three years after the final entry
Explanation: Accident records must be archived for three years after the final date entered into the book.
9. What is the recommended alcohol intake for men and women? Give ONE answer
A 10 units per week
B 14 units per week
C 16 units per week
D 18 units per week
Correct Answer: B 14 units per week
Explanation: As of 2016, the NHS recommended alcohol intake be restricted to 14 units per week for both men and women.
10. After how long does a first aider certificate expire? Give ONE answer
A Five years
B It does not
C One year
D Three years
Correct Answer: D Three years
Explanation: The certification period for first aiders is three years, following which first aiders will need to carry out a full course of training again. It is recommended that refresher courses be taken during these three years.
11. Which THREE of the following must you do if you are first on the scene of a serious accident? Give THREE answers
A Assess the casualty's injuries FIRST
B Assess the situation FIRST
C Call for qualified help, and stay with the casualty
D Do NOT move the casualty unless it is in order to preserve life
E Go to fetch qualified help
F Move the casualty somewhere warm and dry in order to preserve life
Correct Answer: B Assess the situation FIRST, C Call for qualified help, and stay with the casualty, D Do NOT move the casualty unless it is in order to preserve life
Explanation: If you are the first on the scene of a serious casualty, your first action must always be to assess the situation. Do not move the casualty unless it is necessary to preserve life, send for qualified help, and stay with them.
12. You have 35 employees on site - what first aid personnel would be appropriate? Give ONE answer
A One appointed person
B One first aider trained in Emergency First Aid at Work (EFAW)
C Three first aiders trained in First Aid at Work (FAW)
D Two appointed people
Correct Answer: B One first aider trained in Emergency First Aid at Work (EFAW)
Explanation: For a site with 25-50 employees, you are recommended to have at least one first aider trained in EFAW.
13. Which TWO of the following suggestions will help employees avoid skin diseases and issues? Give TWO answers
A Never use conditioning cream
B Use barrier cream on gloves
C Use barrier creams - but not on gloves
D Use hand conditioning cream
E Wash difficult stains with spirits or solvents
Correct Answer: C Use barrier creams - but not on gloves, D Use hand conditioning cream
Explanation: Employees can take simple additional steps to protect their skin. These include using barrier creams (but not on gloves), and hand conditioning cream and cleaners. Spirits and solvents must not be used, as they strip oils from your skin leaving it less protected.
14. Under what conditions might nuisance dust masks be used as RPE? Give ONE answer
A They are not classed as RPE or PPE, and offer little protection (if any)
B When no other RPE is available
C When sanding wood
D When working in enclosed spaces
Correct Answer: A They are not classed as RPE or PPE, and offer little protection (if any)
Explanation: Nuisance dust masks do not meet any current PPE or RPE standards, and should not be used as such.
15. Which THREE of the following will help you avoid purchasing counterfeit PPE? Give THREE answers
A Do not go for the cheapest option
B Look for CE marked products
C Search online for the best deal
D Seek out a reputable supplier
E Seek out a supplier that many people are purchasing from
F Test it yourself first
Correct Answer: A Do not go for the cheapest option, B Look for CE marked products, D Seek out a reputable supplier
Explanation: The production of ineffective, cheap counterfeit PPE is on the rise. So ensure you are buying from a reputable supplier and that products are CE marked - do not be tempted by the cheapest option.
16. Which of the following MUST you refer to when putting together a COSHH assessment for a hazardous substance product? Give ONE answer
A Chemical composition
B GDPR regulations
C Safety data sheet
D Supplier's consultant
Correct Answer: C Safety data sheet
Explanation: The safety data sheet for hazardous substances must be referred to when you are putting together a COSHH assessment for activity involving them.
17. Which of the following is NOT something you must ensure when issuing a worker with RPE? Give ONE answer
A That it is appropriate for the hazards involved in the job
B That it is properly face-fitted
C That it is suitable for the worker's physical condition
D That the worker removes any facial hair
Correct Answer: D That the worker removes any facial hair
Explanation: RPE must be properly face-fitted, and suitable for both the task at hand and the worker's physical condition (e.g., if they have a breathing condition). If facial hair is not removed, a suitable alternative must be found.
18. What is the purpose of REACH regulation? Give ONE answer
A To ensure chemical manufacturers provide useful information regarding the safe use and hazards of chemical substances
B To ensure employers have comprehensive and effective safety policies on the use of chemical substances
C To ensure hazardous substances are not used on site
D To provide comprehensive training to apprentices on the nature of chemical substances
Correct Answer: A To ensure chemical manufacturers provide useful information regarding the safe use and hazards of chemical substances
Explanation: The EU regulation REACH (Registration, Evaluation, Authorisation, and restriction of Chemical substances) ensures manufacturers provide good information regarding the safe use and associated hazards of chemical substances.
19. Which THREE of the following statements regarding the use of laboratory analysis to identify asbestos are TRUE? Give THREE answers
A It is expensive
B It is inexpensive
C It is relatively fast
D It is the ONLY way to establish the presence of asbestos
E It is the most effective method, but other reliable alternatives are available
F It takes longer than alternative methods
Correct Answer: B It is inexpensive, C It is relatively fast, D It is the ONLY way to establish the presence of asbestos
Explanation: Laboratory analysis is the only way to establish the presence of asbestos - but it is relatively inexpensive and fast.
20. You are doing contract work for a housing association, and believe asbestos may be present in the building. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Give ONE answer
A You ARE doing work for a domestic client, and MUST be granted access to the asbestos register
B You ARE doing work for a domestic client, and therefore they are NOT legally required to keep an asbestos register
C You are NOT doing work for a domestic client, and MUST be granted access to the asbestos register
D You are NOT doing work for a domestic client, but housing associations are NOT legally required to keep an asbestos register
Correct Answer: C You are NOT doing work for a domestic client, and MUST be granted access to the asbestos register
Explanation: Housing associations are classified as non-domestic clients, and they must therefore both keep an asbestos register and give contractors access to it.
21. What time period is used to compare daily dose noise exposure? Give ONE answer
A 10 hours
B 6 hours
C 8 hours
D The length of a standard on-site shift (variable)
Correct Answer: C 8 hours
Explanation: The daily dose value describes personal noise exposure over an 8 hour period.
22. Which TWO of the following describe the lower exposure action levels for daily dose and peak levels? Give TWO answers
A Daily dose: 80 dB(A)
B Daily dose: 90 dB(A)
C Peak level: 135 dB(C)
D Peak level: 150 dB(C)
Correct Answer: A Daily dose: 80 dB(A), C Peak level: 135 dB(C)
Explanation: The lower exposure action level is 80 dB(A) for daily dose, and 135 dB(C) for peak level.
23. Who is legally responsible for ensuring that manual handling is planned and carried out in such a way as to avoid injury? Give TWO answers
A The client
B The employees
C The employer
D The health and safety inspector
E The provider of manual handling aids
Correct Answer: B The employees, C The employer
Explanation: Employers and employees are both legally responsible for safely planning and carrying out manual handling.
24. When should the boundary of a site be secured? Give ONE answer
A Immediately following possession
B Only at the client's request
C Only if there is a risk to public safety
D Only when construction is about to commence
Correct Answer: A Immediately following possession
Explanation: Sites must be secured using hoarding and lockable gates immediately upon possession of the site.
25. Which THREE of the following describe the colour-coding for safety signs? Give THREE answers
A Mandatory signs are blue
B Mandatory signs are yellow
C Prohibition signs are blue
D Prohibition signs are red
E Warning signs are red
F Warning signs are yellow
Correct Answer: A Mandatory signs are blue, D Prohibition signs are red, F Warning signs are yellow
Explanation: Mandatory signs are blue, prohibition signs are red, and warning signs are yellow
26. Who is responsible for the fire risk assessment during the construction phase? Give ONE answer
A A responsible person identified by the principal contractor
B All employees
C The client
D The principal contractor
Correct Answer: A A responsible person identified by the principal contractor
Explanation: By law, a responsible person must be appointed by the Principal Contractor to be in charge of the fire risk assessment.
27. What is the difference between a fire marshal and a fire warden? Give ONE answer
A A marshal is qualified to carry out minor firefighting, a warden is not
B A marshal manages the site, a warden manages an area within it
C A warden is trained in EFAW, a marshal is not
D A warden manages the site, a marshal manages an area within it
Correct Answer: B A marshal manages the site, a warden manages an area within it
Explanation: A fire marshal manages fire safety for the site; a fire warden is responsible for a specified area within it.
28. Which of the following statements are TRUE? Give ONE answer
A A charged item is not necessarily a live item
B A disconnected circuit is a dead circuit
C An isolated wire is a dead wire
D Material is not a conductor unless it is used in a circuit
Correct Answer: A A charged item is not necessarily a live item
Explanation: Isolation and disconnection do not equate to something being dead, and an item may become charged by induction or static charging, not by being live. Conductors do not have to be part of circuits.
29. What precaution must be taken when using mains powered hand tools? Give ONE answer
A Do not operate the tool for more than ten minutes at a time
B Ensure the correct PPE is being worn
C Ensure wires are properly insulated
D Use a portable RCD
Correct Answer: D Use a portable RCD
Explanation: Residual Current Devices (RCDs) must be used when the use of mains-powered hand tools cannot be avoided.
30. Which THREE of the following describe duties a temporary works supervisor is likely to be assigned? Give THREE answers
A Assisting the temporary works co-ordinator
B Checking and supervising
C Issuing permits for loading/unloading
D Leading the temporary works co-ordinator
E Planning the temporary works construction
F Taking legal responsibility for any accidents happening during temporary works
Correct Answer: A Assisting the temporary works co-ordinator, B Checking and supervising, C Issuing permits for loading/unloading
Explanation: Temporary works supervisors have a number of duties, which are likely to include issuing permits for loading/unloading, assisting the temporary works co-ordinator, and the usual checking and supervision.
31. What MUST be in place on hose joints? Give ONE answer
A Lashings
B Leak detector
C RCDs
D Whip checks
Correct Answer: D Whip checks
Explanation: Whip checks must be fitted on hose joints to prevent injury if the joint breaks.
32. When must you establish pedestrian routes on site where vehicles are in use? Give ONE answer
A When lighting conditions are poor
B When plant is in use
C When space permits
D When there are more than 5 vehicles in operation on site
Correct Answer: C When space permits
Explanation: Pedestrian routes should be put in place where space permits.
33. What precaution should you take if a vehicle load projects outside of the vehicle body? Give ONE answer
A Ensure a marshal accompanies the vehicle
B Install a warning sign, flag, or beacon
C Nothing in particular if the load is secured
D This must NEVER happen
Correct Answer: B Install a warning sign, flag, or beacon
Explanation: Projecting loads must be indicated - you might use a flag, a sign, or a beacon to do so.
34. Why is it good practice for static equipment to be set up on impervious surfaces? Give ONE answer
A So spillages are absorbed into the ground
B So spillages can be detected and contained
C So spillages do not create a fire hazard
D So spillages do not create hazardous vapour
Correct Answer: B So spillages can be detected and contained
Explanation: Impervious surfaces are water-resistant. Any spillages or leaks will therefore be clearly visible, and also easier to contain.
35. If a piece of lifting equipment fails or overturns, under what circumstances must this be reported to the HSE? Give ONE answer
A If the incident caused environmental damage
B If the load being lifted contained hazardous materials
C If there is an injury
D Under all circumstances
Correct Answer: D Under all circumstances
Explanation: All failure, collapse, or overturning of lifting equipment must be reported to the HSE, under all circumstances. It constitutes a notifiable dangerous occurrence.
36. What must be checked if a tower crane is being used near an airport? Give ONE answer
A Airspace restrictions
B Atmospheric pressure
C Flight scheduling
D Planning restrictions
Correct Answer: A Airspace restrictions
Explanation: There may be airspace restrictions in place near airports - if a tower crane of being used, these must be checked.
37. What restrictions apply to the use of hand signals in directing lifting operations and vehicles on site? Give TWO answers
A They may only be given by trained persons
B They must be accompanied by the use of hand-held signs
C They must be restricted to those specified in the Health and Safety Regulations
D They must only be given by people over the age of 18
E They must only be used where alternative navigation tools like CCTV and mirrors cannot be provided
Correct Answer: A They may only be given by trained persons, C They must be restricted to those specified in the Health and Safety Regulations
Explanation: Hand signals must conform to those specified in site regulations, and can only be given by trained persons.
38. What must be taken into account regarding the use of LMI units? Give ONE answer
A They are the only way to track lift capacity
B They must be regularly reset
C They only measure latitudinal instability
D They should NEVER be used
Correct Answer: B They must be regularly reset
Explanation: LMI units must be regularly reset, and only help monitor longitudinal instability.
39. What TWO of the following MUST be taken into account when using an excavator with a fitted bucket for lifting? Give TWO answers
A This should never be done
B This will affect the operator's sightline
C This will affect the weight of the load that can be lifted
D This will allow for more weight to be lifted
E This will require a permit to work
Correct Answer: B This will affect the operator's sightline, C This will affect the weight of the load that can be lifted
Explanation: Keeping the bucket in place on an excavator used for lifting will affect the operator's sightline, and also the weight of the load that can be lifted. This is because the weight of the bucket must be factored into the safe working load.
40. Which of the following is the best way of carrying out chimney work? Give ONE answer
A Directly from the roof
B From a fixed access scaffold
C From a ladder rested against the chimney stack
D From a mobile elevating work platform
Correct Answer: B From a fixed access scaffold
Explanation: Fixed access scaffolds offer the safest way of accessing chimneys for work.
41. Which of the following describes an APPROPRIATE way in which to use a ladder? Give ONE answer
A For heavy lifting
B For less than 30 minutes
C So the worker is side-on to their activity
D The ladder is set up at a 1:5 ratio
Correct Answer: B For less than 30 minutes
Explanation: Ladders must be used for light work of short duration only, and must be correctly angled and oriented.
42. What must be done if a scaffold guard rail needs to be removed temporarily? Give ONE answer
A Permission must be acquired, and a trained and competent person found to carry out the job
B The safety manual issued by the provider must be consulted in order to carry out the activity safely
C This must never happen
D Warning signs must be put up
Correct Answer: A Permission must be acquired, and a trained and competent person found to carry out the job
Explanation: The removal of guard rails can only be done with permission, and by a person who is trained and competent.
43. What is the specified depth at which a trench will need to have supports installed? Give ONE answer
A 1.2m
B 2.5m
C 2m
D There is no specified depth
Correct Answer: D There is no specified depth
Explanation: The specified depth has been removed from health and safety regulations - whether or not to install supports must now be decided based on a risk assessment.
44. In what TWO ways might you manage surcharging? Give TWO answers
A Ensure barriers are erected around the excavation
B Ensure the excavation is adequately ventilated
C Ensure the excavation supports are designed to accommodate it
D Ensure vehicle traffic does not come near to the excavation
E Ensure water in the bottom of the excavation is properly pumped
Correct Answer: C Ensure the excavation supports are designed to accommodate it, D Ensure vehicle traffic does not come near to the excavation
Explanation: Surcharging is damage resulting from pressure applied to the sides of an excavation. Ensure traffic routes do not pass by the excavation - and that the excavation is adequately supported if this is not possible.
45. Which TWO of the following weather conditions might dangerously impact the stability of an excavation? Give ONE answer
A Dry weather
B Fog
C Heavy rain
D Wind
Correct Answer: A Dry weather, C Heavy rain
Explanation: When soil becomes waterlogged, or dries out, this affects the nature of the ground and therefore the stability of any excavation.
46. What is the safe method of backfilling when underground services have been exposed? Give ONE answer
A Begin by compacting rock around the service
B Begin by compacting selected backfill around the service
C Begin by placing warning tiles or tape around the service
D Begin by tipping hardcore around the service
Correct Answer: B Begin by compacting selected backfill around the service
Explanation: Backfilling must be done carefully to ensure no damage is done to the service - as such, you should begin by compacting selected backfill around it.
47. When might you use oxygen to enrich an atmosphere? Give ONE answer
A Never
B When the atmosphere becomes stale
C When the atmosphere becomes too hot
D When the atmosphere is filled with fumes
Correct Answer: A Never
Explanation: Enriching oxygen in the atmosphere will make organic materials exceptionally combustible, and fires especially dangerous. This should not be practiced.
48. What special measure must be taken if an assessment determines that there may be a risk of asphyxia? Give ONE answer
A Fall arrest harnesses and lanyards must be provided
B Lifelines must be provided
C Resuscitation equipment must be provided
D Secondary communications must be provided
Correct Answer: C Resuscitation equipment must be provided
Explanation: Resuscitation equipment must be provided, and workers must be trained in using it.
49. In which TWO of the following locations may decanting of dangerous substances kept in a store be carried out? Give TWO answers
A In a separate fireproof room
B In a separate underground unit
C In the open air
D In the store
Correct Answer: A In a separate fireproof room, C In the open air
Explanation: Decanting must not be carried out in the store.
50. What does a low air tightness testing result mean for a building? Give ONE answer
A The building is not sufficiently airtight
B The building is susceptible to gas leaks
C There will be high unintended heat loss
D There will be low unintended heat loss
Correct Answer: D There will be low unintended heat loss
Explanation: A low air tightness testing result means there is good insulation - and therefore low unintended heat loss.