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Free Managers and Professionals Mock Test 2

Construction Test > Free Managers and Professionals Mock Test 2

You have 45 minutes to answer 50 multiple choice CSCS Health, Safety and Evironment Test questions for Operatives and Specialists. You need to answer at least 42 out of 50 questions correctly to pass. Answers may be reviewed after each question or at the end of the test. Good luck!

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List of questions in above test (quick view). Click question box to reveal correct answer.
1. You decide to not follow an approved code of practice (ACoP) for a job, as it would not be safe under the job's specific circumstances. What must you be aware of? Give ONE answer
A This is illegal - Approved codes of practice are compulsory
B This is illegal - but you or your organization cannot be prosecuted for it unless there is an incident
C This is not illegal, and would not therefore be admissible as evidence in case of prosecution
D This is not illegal, but failure to comply could be cited as failure to comply with the law if the organisation is prosecuted
Correct Answer: D This is not illegal, but failure to comply could be cited as failure to comply with the law if the organisation is prosecuted
Explanation: You are not legally obliged to follow ACoPs, but if your company is prosecuted then a failure to comply with an ACoP could be cited as a failure to comply with the law, and used as evidence.
2. The phrase "so far as is practicable" is used to qualify a given duty. What does this mean? Give ONE answer
A It must be carried out unless it is not possible under project timeframes
B It must be carried out, with no regard for cost or inconvenience
C There is scope for taking cost, time, and convenience into consideration when weighing up whether to carry it out
D Whether or not you carry it out is entirely at your discretion
Correct Answer: B It must be carried out, with no regard for cost or inconvenience
Explanation: "So far as is practicable" qualifies a duty which must be complied with if the technology and knowledge exists to comply with it. There is NO scope for considerations of time or cost - these are permissible is a duty must be complied with "so far as is reasonably practicable".
3. Which of the following is TRUE regarding prosecutions for health and safety law? Give ONE answer
A The defendant is always guilty to some degree in the eyes of the law
B The defendant is effectively guilty until proven innocent
C The defendant is innocent until proven guilty
D The defendant will not have access to legal representation
Correct Answer: B The defendant is effectively guilty until proven innocent
Explanation: The burden of proof is reversed when it comes to health and safety law. Defendants must prove to the court that further risk mitigation than that which was provided was NOT practicable, or reasonably practicable.
4. Who must prepare the health and safety file, and what information must it include? Check ALL that apply
A The client, and all information regarding health and safety provisions made on site
B The health and safety executive, and any information pertaining to health and safety infractions
C The principal contractor, and only information that will help future works be carried out safely
D The principal designer, and only information that will help future works be carried out safely
Correct Answer: D The principal designer, and only information that will help future works be carried out safely
Explanation: The health and safety file must contain any information that will be relevant to health and safety provisions made during future works. It is the responsibility of the principal designer.
5. Which TWO of the following describe pre-construction information? Give TWO answers
A Project information gathered in the early stages of construction
B Project information resulting from pre-construction surveys
C Project information that is easy to get hold of
D Project information that the client is already in possession of
Correct Answer: C Project information that is easy to get hold of, D Project information that the client is already in possession of
Explanation: Pre-construction information is information that is easy to get hold of prior to construction, and will include project information the client is already in possession of.
6. What, in order, are the four key stages in the HSE's model for health and safety management? Give ONE answer
A Plan, check, act, do
B Plan, check, revise, act
C Plan, do, check, act
D Plan, survey, confirm, act
Correct Answer: C Plan, do, check, act
Explanation: The four key stages, in order, are: plan, do, check, act.
7. You need to be aware that the MHSWR makes special regulatory provision for the protection of which THREE groups? Give THREE answers
A New or expecting mothers
B People under 5ft 5
C People under the age of 18
D People who are parents
E People with dependents
F Women of childbearing age
Correct Answer: A New or expecting mothers, C People under the age of 18, F Women of childbearing age
Explanation: Young persons, new or expecting mothers, and women of childbearing age all have specific provisions made for their protection. But risk assessments must also consider other vulnerabilities of the people involved.
8. What is a residual risk? Give ONE answer
A A smaller risk that does not require control measures
B Risk created as a by-product of processes
C Risk created by loose materials and slurry
D The small level of risk that may still remain after a control measure is put in place
Correct Answer: D The small level of risk that may still remain after a control measure is put in place
Explanation: When control measures are put in place to manage a risk, a small risk level may still remain. This is known as "residual risk".
9. An employer's risk assessment was carried out a week prior to the work beginning. What does this mean? Give ONE answer
A This is illegal
B This is normal, and a point of work risk assessment should be carried out before work begins
C This is normal, and no further action needs to be taken
D This risk assessment has expired, and a new one must be obtained from the employer before work can begin
Correct Answer: B This is normal, and a point of work risk assessment should be carried out before work begins
Explanation: Employer risk assessments are not usually prepared at the time and location of work beginning. A point of work risk assessment is a simple and safe additional check you can do to ensure the risk assessment is still relevant.
10. You are using the quantitative risk assessment method to assess the use of a ladder. The likelihood of falling is medium, and the severity of the risk is low. What would be the combined risk rating? Give ONE answer
A High
B Low
C Medium
D More information needed
Correct Answer: C Medium
Explanation: When carrying out a quantitative risk assessment, the 'combined risk rating' is the highest rating of the two individual likelihood and severity ratings. In this case, the likelihood (of falling from the ladder) is medium, so higher than the severity. The combined risk rating is therefore medium.
11. Which additional strand of competence was introduced by a report in 2011 for the competency card scheme? Give ONE answer
A Behavioural competence
B Environmental competence
C Health and safety awareness competence
D Psychological competence
Correct Answer: A Behavioural competence
Explanation: Behavioural competence was supported by a 2011 report as something which should be introduced into competency card schemes. It covers risk and situational awareness, along with self-awareness.
12. What must happen to the records detailing information provided in site induction and people who have received induction? Give ONE answer
A A copy must be sent to the Health and Safety Executive
B They must be destroyed after 30 days
C They must be kept completely confidential
D They must be kept to prove compliance with legislation
Correct Answer: D They must be kept to prove compliance with legislation
Explanation: These records are important to help prove that induction sessions took place in accordance with regulations.
13. Supervisors are advised to encourage workers to use SLAM. What does this stand for? Give ONE answer
A Safe, local, affordable, manageable
B Size, length, altitude, momentum
C Stabilise, level, adjust, move
D Stop, look, assess, manage
Correct Answer: D Stop, look, assess, manage
Explanation: SLAM stands for stop, look, assess, manage - it is a technique workers can use to identify and manage health and safety risks they may encounter whilst working.
14. Which of the following is NOT an example of improving behavioural safety in the workplace? Give ONE answer
A Actively engaging employees in the health and safety decision-making process
B Creating a fixed list of people to consult regarding health and safety concerns
C Maintaining good welfare facilities
D Matching a worker's physical capabilities to a task
Correct Answer: B Creating a fixed list of people to consult regarding health and safety concerns
Explanation: Managing behavioural safety involves ensuring employees engage in a positive and productive way with all aspects of work. A fixed list of people you consult on issues may prove ineffective, as it may lead you to overlook parties with valuable contributions.
15. Which of the following describes good supervision? Give ONE answer
A Giving workers space to learn by doing when incidents occur
B Leading by example, both intervening in and challenging unsafe situations
C Leading by example, taking detailed notes when you observe a dangerous situation
D Maintaining a distance from your team to project strength and authority
Correct Answer: B Leading by example, both intervening in and challenging unsafe situations
Explanation: It is crucial that supervisors lead by example. Failing to intervene or challenge when dangerous behaviours or practices come up may be interpreted as condoning or permitting them.
16. Which of the following would NOT be a reportable incident under RIDDOR? Give ONE answer
A An accident leaving an employee unable to do their job for five consecutive days
B An accident resulting in an employee fracturing their arm
C Breathing apparatus malfunctioning in pre-use testing
D Winch failure
Correct Answer: A An accident leaving an employee unable to do their job for five consecutive days
Explanation: There are many defined reportable incidents under RIDDOR that you must be familiar with. Incapacity as a result of injury becomes reportable once a worker is absent for more than seven consecutive days.
17. Where an employee is undertaking health surveillance that requires testing by a doctor, how must this doctor be appointed? Give ONE answer
A They must be appointed by the HSE
B They must be appointed by the client
C They must be recommended by the employee's GP
D They must first be appointed as the on-site doctor
Correct Answer: A They must be appointed by the HSE
Explanation: Doctors carrying out health surveillance testing must be appointed by the HSE.
18. Which of the following persons have the HIGHEST grade of first aid training? Give ONE answer
A Appointed person
B EFAW first aider
C FAW first aider
D Principal Designer
Correct Answer: C FAW first aider
Explanation: The First Aid at Work (FAW) is the highest level of qualification among these. Appointed Persons are not permitted to give first aid, but will take charge in an emergency and maintain first aid equipment.
19. What kind of RPE would be appropriate for oxygen-depleted atmospheres? Give ONE answer
A Breathing apparatus
B Full-mask respirator
C Half-mask respirator
D Powered respirator
Correct Answer: A Breathing apparatus
Explanation: Respirators must not be used as RPE if there is a risk of the atmosphere being, or becoming, oxygen deficient.
20. What is the most common way that hazardous substances enter the body? Give ONE answer
A Contact with the skin
B Ingestion
C Inhalation
D Through abrasions and cuts in the skin
Correct Answer: C Inhalation
Explanation: Many hazardous substances are suspended as particles in the air, and most commonly enter the body through inhalation.
21. Under what circumstances is it safe to use a dust-filtering face mask as RPE? Give ONE answer
A Under all circumstances if ventilation is provided
B Where additional fumes and gases produced are non-toxic
C Where dust and fumes with small particulates are the only hazardous substances
D Where dust is the only hazardous substance
Correct Answer: D Where dust is the only hazardous substance
Explanation: Dust-filtering face masks will not provide protection against fumes, gases, and vapours, and should not be used as RPE where these are present.
22. True or false: union-appointed safety representatives must have access to monitoring and health surveillance records? Give ONE answer
A FALSE
B TRUE
Correct Answer: B TRUE
Explanation: Records pertaining to monitoring arrangements and health surveillance must be made available to union-appointed health and safety representatives.
23. What are the three types of high-level noise common on construction sites which pose a health hazard? Give THREE answers
A Bass
B Continuous
C Excessive
D Impact
E Intermittent
F Vibrational
Correct Answer: B Continuous, D Impact, E Intermittent
Explanation: The three types of noise are intermittent (e.g., stop-start noise from tools); continuous (e.g., from a generator); and impact (e.g., from pecker breakers).
24. Which TWO of the following describe the exposure LIMIT value for daily dose and peak levels? Give TWO answers
A Daily dose: 87 dB(A)
B Daily dose: 95 dB(A)
C Peak level: 140 dB(C)
D Peak level: 145 dB(C)
Correct Answer: A Daily dose: 87 dB(A), C Peak level: 140 dB(C)
Explanation: The exposure limit value is 87 dB(A) for daily dose, and 140 dB(C) for peak level.
25. Where the person carrying out the task is a woman, by how much is it recommended that the load should be lightened? Give ONE answer
A 0.1
B 0.3
C 0.8
D Not at all
Correct Answer: B 0.3
Explanation: The HSE recommends that loads should be reduced by about 30% in weight if being handled by women.
26. At what height can most weight be safely carried? Give ONE answer
A Elbow height
B Knuckle height
C Mid-lower leg height
D Shoulder height
Correct Answer: B Knuckle height
Explanation: When lifting and lowering, most weight can be carried at knuckle height - and least at shoulder height and mid-lower leg height.
27. Which of the following is TRUE regarding trespassers on a construction site? Give ONE answer
A It is recommended that you protect them from risk, but this is not a legal matter
B They are breaking the law, and therefore have no rights
C They are committing a criminal offence
D They have a legal right to be protected from risk
Correct Answer: D They have a legal right to be protected from risk
Explanation: Construction site trespass is not generally speaking a criminal offence. There is a legal duty to protect both trespassers and non-employees on site from risk.
28. Which of the following is responsible for most fire-related fatalities? Give ONE answer
A Accidents made in haste
B Building collapse
C Heat
D Smoke
Correct Answer: D Smoke
Explanation: Smoke causes asphyxiation, and is responsible for most fire fatalities.
29. Under what circumstances might you use propane cylinders with equipment designed for butane gas? Give ONE answer
A Under no circumstances
B When a hotter flame is required
C When no butane is available
D When used to weld copper
Correct Answer: A Under no circumstances
Explanation: Butane and propane cylinders must never be used on equipment they are not designed for - the two gases operate at different temperatures.
30. If an LPG leak cannot be turned off or isolated, what must you do? Give ONE answer
A Ensure no sources of ignition are nearby and allow the cylinder to drain
B Transport the cylinder to an empty, open area and call the fire service
C Transport the cylinder to an empty, open area and do not approach until all the gas has leaked out
D Transport the cylinder to an enclosed, empty space and call the fire services
Correct Answer: B Transport the cylinder to an empty, open area and call the fire service
Explanation: LPG leaks can be highly dangerous. If they cannot be turned off or isolated, take the cylinder to an empty and open space and call the fire service.
31. What voltage supply should mains-powered electrical hand tools on site run from? Give ONE answer
A 110 volts
B 230 volts
C 240 volts
D 480 volts
Correct Answer: A 110 volts
Explanation: Tools on site should run from 110 volt power supplies if they are not battery-powered.
32. Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding pedestrian and vehicle access to the site? Give TWO answers
A Ideally there will be separate entrances for each
B Ideally they will use the same entrance
C It must be tightly controlled
D It must not be controlled to allow for easy flow of traffic
E There must be no signage
Correct Answer: A Ideally there will be separate entrances for each, C It must be tightly controlled
Explanation: Separate site entrances will ideally be provided for vehicle and pedestrian access for safety reasons, and all site entrances must be tightly controlled.
33. What is one MAJOR risk created by a poorly fitted disc on an abrasive wheel? Give ONE answer
A Damage to equipment
B Disintegration
C Fire
D Silicosis
Correct Answer: B Disintegration
Explanation: Discs that are poorly fitted, inappropriate for the machine, or running too fast are liable to disintegrate.
34. What THREE of the following conditions must be met for an abrasive wheel to be safely mounted? Give THREE answers
A A spark guard is in place
B A spark guard must NOT be in place
C The operator is appointed by the employer in writing
D The operator must be over 18
E The work rest is set no further than 1 cm from the wheel
F The work rest is set no further than 3mm to the wheel
Correct Answer: A A spark guard is in place, C The operator is appointed by the employer in writing, F The work rest is set no further than 3mm to the wheel
Explanation: Abrasive wheels can be highly dangerous if improperly mounted. There must be a gap no larger than 3 mm between the wheel and the work rest, there must be a spark guard, and the operator must be appointed by the employer in writing to mount the abrasive wheel.
35. What might you do if an abrasive wheel is being used in the vicinity of other workers? Give ONE answer
A Erect a screen
B Erect netting
C Nothing in particular
D Warn the people in the vicinity to be careful
Correct Answer: A Erect a screen
Explanation: A screen is a good way of managing the risk created by use of an abrasive wheel to those in the vicinity. Another option is to put in place an exclusion zone.
36. Which TWO of the following describe the recommended protocol for pedestrians around plant machinery? Give TWO answers
A Call out to the operator before entering zone 1
B Do not enter zone 1 without positive confirmation from the operator
C Do not enter zone 2 unless the machinery is fitted with CCTV
D Ensure the vehicle has stopped moving before entering zone 1
E Never enter zone 2
Correct Answer: B Do not enter zone 1 without positive confirmation from the operator, E Never enter zone 2
Explanation: Zones 1 and 2 are the areas near to, and next to, plant machinery respectively. Pedestrians may only enter zone 1 with positive confirmation from the operator - and must never enter zone 2.
37. When might you be legally permitted to use a generic risk assessment? Give ONE answer
A Where the lifting operation does not involve a high risk of injury
B Where the lifting operation involves fewer than four people
C Where the lifting operation is repeated under identical circumstances with no change in risk level and hazards
D Where the persons involved are experienced, accredited, and familiar with the task
Correct Answer: C Where the lifting operation is repeated under identical circumstances with no change in risk level and hazards
Explanation: Generic risk assessments may be used where the lifting operation is repeated under identical circumstances, with no change in risk level or hazards.
38. Which of the following does NOT fall into the category of "lifting equipment"? Give ONE answer
A Gin wheel
B Hoist
C Static crane
D Wheelbarrow
Correct Answer: D Wheelbarrow
Explanation: Wheelbarrows are considered manual handling aids.
39. What TWO additional provisions must be fitted on excavators with a SWL of more than one tonne? Give TWO answers
A Boom-lowering control device
B Falling object protection
C Residual current device
D Roll over protection
E Warning device (acoustic or visual)
Correct Answer: A Boom-lowering control device, E Warning device (acoustic or visual)
Explanation: Excavators working with this SWL must be fitted with a warning device and a boom-lowering control device.
40. What is the safest means of accessing and storing materials for work on a sloping roof? Give ONE answer
A A mobile elevating work platform
B A scaffold platform at least 1m higher than the eaves
C A scaffold platform at the height of the eaves
D Passenger and materials hoist
Correct Answer: C A scaffold platform at the height of the eaves
Explanation: Sloping and curved rooves create access and storage problems - a good way around this is to erect a scaffold platform at the height of the eaves so as to have a safe, flat surface.
41. Which of the following gas leaks would be LEAST hazardous in an excavation? Give ONE answer
A Helium
B Hydrogen sulphide
C LPG
D Methane
Correct Answer: A Helium
Explanation: Helium is the only gas among these that is lighter than air. Gases that are heavier than air will pool in the bottom of an excavation, and can prove injurious or deadly.
42. When detecting underground services, why is it important not to rely on a cable avoidance tool? Give ONE answer
A It may not detect all necessary services
B It often gives unreliable readings
C It should not be used for this task
D It will not detect any hazardous services
Correct Answer: A It may not detect all necessary services
Explanation: Tools for cable location will not always detect the necessary services.
43. Which THREE of the following describe the correct procedure for excavating around underground services? Give THREE answers
A Avoid sharp tools
B Finally expose the service through vertical digging
C Start by excavating alongside the service
D Start by excavating directly above the service
E Use hand digging
F Use insulated power tools
Correct Answer: A Avoid sharp tools, C Start by excavating alongside the service, E Use hand digging
Explanation: Within 500mm of services, digging must be done with insulated, hand-held tools that do not have sharp points or edges. Do not expose the service from directly above.
44. What must an operator do if their machine makes contact with damaged electricity cables and it is not safe for them to jump clear? Give ONE answer
A Position themselves at the highest possible point in the vehicle
B Stay put, and do not touch anything metallic in the vehicle
C Stay put, ensuring contact is made with metallic vehicle parts at all times
D Wrap clothing around exposed skin and climb down
Correct Answer: B Stay put, and do not touch anything metallic in the vehicle
Explanation: If it is not possible to jump clear, the operator must ensure they do not touch metallic parts of the vehicle - and shout for help.
45. At what level of oxygen in the atmosphere will humans begin to suffer from ill health effects? Give ONE answer
A 0.16
B 0.19
C 0.21
D 0.25
Correct Answer: B 0.19
Explanation: Normal air is about 21% oxygen. Respiratory problems will begin if this falls to or below 19%
46. If smoke-logging is an anticipated problem for work in confined space, what must be done? Give ONE answer
A Entry must not be made under any circumstances
B The HSE must be notified in advance of entry
C The client must be notified in advance of entry
D The emergency services must be notified in advance of entry
Correct Answer: D The emergency services must be notified in advance of entry
Explanation: Under some circumstances, the emergency services must be notified before a confined space can be entered. This is true if smoke-logging might become a problem.
47. Flammable liquid containers being used for work (but not currently in use) must be kept in a specialised bin. What should the volume of this bin be? Give ONE answer
A 100% of the combined capacity of all containers stored inside
B 100% of the largest vessel stored inside
C 110% of the combined capacity of all containers stored inside
D 110% of the largest vessel stored inside
Correct Answer: D 110% of the largest vessel stored inside
Explanation: The storage bin must have a volume of at least 110% of the largest vessel that is stored inside of it. This accounts for leaks and any additional volume created by foam.
48. Which THREE of the following may indicate an LPG leak? Give THREE answers
A A smell
B Bulging
C Frosting on the cylinder
D Small flames around the valve
E The sound of escaping gas
F Yellowing of the cylinder
Correct Answer: A A smell, C Frosting on the cylinder, E The sound of escaping gas
Explanation: LPG leaks are highly dangerous, and might be indicated by a leaking sound, a smell, or frosting on the cylinder.
49. You are set to begin work near a scheduled monument. What must you first do? Give ONE answer
A Acquire scheduled monument consent
B Inform the local authority
C Nothing in particular, if the work does not put the monument at risk
D Shield the monument with adequate protection such as netting or screens
Correct Answer: A Acquire scheduled monument consent
Explanation: Even if work is not being done on a scheduled monument itself, work done nearby may require you to obtain scheduled monument consent.
50. How must silty water be treated? Give ONE answer
A In a settlement tank
B It must NOT be left to settle
C It must be chemically cleansed by a registered contractor
D With the correct chemical diluents
Correct Answer: A In a settlement tank
Explanation: Silty water must be left to settle in a settlement tank.