Operatives and Specialists Test 9 (2023)

You have 45 minutes to answer 50 multiple choice CSCS Health, Safety and Evironment Test questions for Operatives and Specialists. You need to answer at least 45 out of 50 questions correctly to pass. Answers may be reviewed after each question or at the end of the test. Good luck!

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List of questions in above test (quick view). Click question box to reveal correct answer.
1. If something remains unclear at the end of a site induction, what should you do? Give ONE answer
A Ask the induction leader whilst the group is still in session
B Nothing - if the leader did not make it clear, it probably was not important
C Wait until the session is completed, then ask the induction leader
D Wait until the session is completed, then consult the handbook
Correct Answer: A Ask the induction leader whilst the group is still in session
Explanation: Always ask for information to be clarified during the session itself. If you found something unclear, it is possible that others did too.
2. If an employee suffers serious injury and is unable to perform in their role for 7 more consecutive days, who must be informed? Give ONE answer
A The Health and Safety Executive (HSE)
B The board of directors
C The recruitment team
D The site manager
Correct Answer: A The Health and Safety Executive (HSE)
Explanation: The HSE must be informed of this injury.
3. You have been in an accident. Which of the following is NOT a required detail for the accident book? Give ONE answer
A Relevant medical history
B The date and time of the accident
C Your address
D Your name
Correct Answer: A Relevant medical history
Explanation: You are not required to provide details of your medical history. The book's purpose is to avoid future accidents.
4. Which of the following is TRUE about carbon dioxide? Give ONE answer
A It has a distinctive smell
B It has a yellow pallour
C It has no smell, taste, or colour
D It tastes sharp
Correct Answer: C It has no smell, taste, or colour
Explanation: Carbon dioxide also has no taste, colour, or smell.
5. Why are face-fit tests important? Give ONE answer
A To ensure respiratory protective equipment is properly fitted
B To ensure workers are not discriminated against
C To ensure workers can see properly when using respiratory protective equipment
D To ensure workers have a clean criminal record
Correct Answer: A To ensure respiratory protective equipment is properly fitted
Explanation: Face fit tests check that respiratory protective equipment will work effectively.
6. Respiratory protective equipment (RPE) uses TWO basic types of filter. Which TWO? Give TWO answers
A Filters for bacteria
B Filters for dust/particles
C Filters for gas/vapours
D Filters for moisture
E Filters for odour
Correct Answer: B Filters for dust/particles, C Filters for gas/vapours
Explanation: Masks typically use filters for gas/vapours, and dust/particles.
7. Why is wet cutting an effective strategy? Give ONE answer
A It does not create additional heat and friction
B It is not an effective strategy
C It prevents much of the dust from escaping into the air
D It reduces the risk of combustion
Correct Answer: C It prevents much of the dust from escaping into the air
Explanation: Wet cutting is a common and effective strategy, as it stops much of the work-related dust escaping in the first place.
8. When using the wet cutting method, how should water be used? Give ONE answer
A It should be applied at a constant rate throughout the cutting process
B It should be sprayed on the material periodically throughout the cutting
C It should be used afterwards, to clear dust from the material
D It should be used to douse the material before cutting, and sluice it afterwards
Correct Answer: A It should be applied at a constant rate throughout the cutting process
Explanation: You must apply water constantly to capture new dust as it is created.
9. You are about to carry out a wall demolition, but have not been given respiratory protective equipment (RPE). What does this mean? Give ONE answer
A It is an oversight. Continue work, but report it in the incident book
B It is an oversight. Do not begin work until you have been given suitable RPE
C RPE is not required for this task, and you can begin working
D RPE is optional for this task, and you can begin working if you wish
Correct Answer: B It is an oversight. Do not begin work until you have been given suitable RPE
Explanation: Never work without RPE if the job you are doing requires it.
10. What is a recommended way of building up competence once you have trained on a new tool? Give ONE answer
A Find some advanced applications for it
B Get someone to supervise you when you first use it
C Use it as frequently as possible
D Use it without supervision to test how much you have absorbed
Correct Answer: B Get someone to supervise you when you first use it
Explanation: When using a tool you have been recently trained on, always begin under supervision.
11. You need to independently use a bandsaw. What must happen before you begin? Give ONE answer
A You must check that you are competent
B You must inform your colleagues
C You must never use a power tool independently
D Your employer must ensure you are competent
Correct Answer: D Your employer must ensure you are competent
Explanation: Your employer must ensure that you are competent to operate powered tools independently before you begin.
12. You need to cut a tile, but the only disc available is not quite right. What should you do? Give ONE answer
A Find the closest substitute
B Only use gentle pressure when cutting the tile
C Only use the tool for short periods of time
D Wait until the correct disc can be found
Correct Answer: D Wait until the correct disc can be found
Explanation: Never use a disc or blade for a job it is not designed to do.
13. Which method of cutting holes will be LESS damaging to your hearing? Give ONE answer
A Using a hammer drill
B Using a rotary diamond cutter
Correct Answer: B Using a rotary diamond cutter
Explanation: A rotary diamond cutter is the safer option to protect your hearing.
14. What is the correct way to fit earplugs? Give ONE answer
A Always ensure at least half the plug is out of your ear canal, so it can be safely removed
B Compress them between two fingers, and insert them as deep as you can
C Push them in without rolling them, as this will damage the fibres and reduce their effectiveness
D Tightly roll them, and insert them deep into the ear canal
Correct Answer: D Tightly roll them, and insert them deep into the ear canal
Explanation: Roll the plugs and insert them deep into the canal; this is easier if you pull the top of your ear to widen the canal.
15. What should you do if you have been drilling and your hands begin to tingle? Give ONE answer
A Continue working - this is not a cause for concern
B Continue working but monitor yourself for further symptoms
C Report your symptoms so better preventative measure can be put in place
D Stop all work and consult a doctor immediately
Correct Answer: C Report your symptoms so better preventative measure can be put in place
Explanation: Tingling fingers can be an early sign of HAVS, and suggest insufficient safety measures are in place. You must report this symptom before the condition worsens.
16. If you cannot find an appropriate place to refuel, what TWO measures must be in place when you refill? Give TWO answers
A You must be no closer than 10 metres from drains or watercourses
B You must catch any spillages by laying an absorbent mat or drip tray underneath
C You must cordon off the area
D You must keep a record of the incident
E You must use a leak-proof siphon
Correct Answer: A You must be no closer than 10 metres from drains or watercourses , B You must catch any spillages by laying an absorbent mat or drip tray underneath
Explanation: Mitigate the risks of pollution by remaining distant from water sources and drains, and laying ground protection underneath.
17. Why might concrete washout be placed in a lined skip? Give ONE answer
A So it can be efficiently removed
B To allow solids to separate from the liquid
C To keep the substance well ventilated
D To reduce the risk of leakage
Correct Answer: B To allow solids to separate from the liquid
Explanation: This is to allow the sediment and liquid to separate, and be disposed of separately.
18. Someone suggests diverting the route of on-site construction vehicles so they pass alongside an excavation. What is the MAIN risk here? Give ONE answer
A That it will distract workers in the excavation
B That noise from the vehicles may drown out communication within the excavation
C That the weight of these vehicles may cause the excavation to collapse
D That workers exiting the excavation may be struck by on-site traffic
Correct Answer: C That the weight of these vehicles may cause the excavation to collapse
Explanation: Heavy vehicles operating too close to an excavation may weaken the walls, increasing the risk of collapse.
19. Who must inspect an excavation before work can begin? Give ONE answer
A A competent person
B The health and safety manager
C The site manager
D The workers who will be entering the excavation
Correct Answer: A A competent person
Explanation: Excavations must be inspected by a competent person.
20. What service is likely to be coloured red or black? Give ONE answer
A Communications
B Electricity
C Gas
D Water
Correct Answer: B Electricity
Explanation: Electricity services are likely to be coloured red or black - but this is not always the case.
21. Whilst undertaking a soldering job in a confined space, you take a lunch break. What must you do? Give ONE answer
A Ensure someone is monitoring the unattended torch whilst you are away
B Ensure the torch is not near any flammable items
C Ensure the torch is properly switched off
D Remove and isolate the torch
Correct Answer: D Remove and isolate the torch
Explanation: Leaks from items like hoses and torches may go unnoticed. When not in use, they must be removed from confined spaces and isolated.
22. Who is primarily in charge of executing the exit plan when a confined space becomes dangerous? Give ONE answer
A All workers in the space are primarily responsible for the exit plan
B The attendant, who must remain at the entrance to the space
C The health and safety manager
D The on-site manager
Correct Answer: B The attendant, who must remain at the entrance to the space
Explanation: An attendant must always man the entrance to a confined space, and is primarily responsible for setting the exit plan in motion.
23. What is ONE example of collective protection? Give ONE answer
A A flat roof
B Harness
C Parapet walls
D Scaffolding
Correct Answer: D Scaffolding
Explanation: Scaffolding is one example of collective protection.
24. What is the FIRST option you must consider according to the hierarchy of control? Give ONE answer
A How to avoid work at height
B How to prevent a fall happening
C How to use collective protection to limit the consequences of falling
D How to use personal protection to limit the consequences of falling
Correct Answer: A How to avoid work at height
Explanation: Your first consideration must be how to avoid working at height.
25. What are TWO key reasons why people do not notice when a roof is fragile? Give TWO answers
A People are not paying attention
B The signage is out of date
C There is no signage in place
D Weathering, dirt, or paintwork conceal its condition
Correct Answer: C There is no signage in place, D Weathering, dirt, or paintwork conceal its condition
Explanation: A lack of appropriate signage, and the presence of factors that affect its appearance, may stop people noticing that a roof is fragile.
26. Which of the following ladders ARE suitable for use on construction sites? Give TWO answers
A Any ladder may be suitable
B Class 1 Industrial
C EN 131 Domestic
D EN 131 Trade and Industrial
Correct Answer: B Class 1 Industrial, D EN 131 Trade and Industrial
Explanation: Never use domestic grade ladders on a construction site.
27. What part of a stepladder must you not stand on? Give ONE answer
A The bottom rung
B The bottom three rungs, unless it is specially designed
C The top rung
D The top three rungs, unless it is specially designed
Correct Answer: D The top three rungs, unless it is specially designed
Explanation: Unless the stepladder has been specially designed, you must avoid using the uppermost rungs.
28. What is the purpose of ground level controls in a mobile elevating work platform? Give ONE answer
A They allow workers in the platform to concentrate on their task
B They allow workers with a better view to control the platform from below
C They are an emergency backup
D They make work more efficient
Correct Answer: C They are an emergency backup
Explanation: Ground level controls are for use in emergencies only.
29. When can disposable dust masks from DIY stores be used as respiratory protective equipment (RPE)? Give ONE answer
A If multiple masks are worn at once
B If no better PPE is available
C If sweeping up light wood dust
D Under no circumstances should they be used as PPE
Correct Answer: D Under no circumstances should they be used as PPE
Explanation: These masks do not meet the required RPE standards. They should not be used as RPE.
30. What element/s must be removed to put out a fire? Give ONE answer
A Any single element
B Heat and fuel
C Heat, oxygen, and fuel
D Oxygen and fuel
Correct Answer: A Any single element
Explanation: Removing any one of these elements will put out a fire.
31. You are working on a building constructed in 1997 which has been cleared as asbestos-free. How should you proceed? Give ONE answer
A Assume there could still be asbestos present, and remain vigilant
B Do not enter the site until the HSE has inspected it
C Keep detailed notes in case you should need to make an insurance claim in future
D Proceed as normal, if the survey has been properly conducted
Correct Answer: A Assume there could still be asbestos present, and remain vigilant
Explanation: Always assume asbestos may still be present - no survey can provide absolute certainty.
32. Who is permitted to remove materials that run a high risk of containing asbestos? Give ONE answer
A A suitably trained worker
B Any party who has completed an advanced asbestos handling course
C Only a licensed contractor
D Only the HSE
Correct Answer: C Only a licensed contractor
Explanation: High risk materials can only be removed by a licensed contractor.
33. When does lead pose a particularly high risk? Give ONE answer
A If you have a heart condition
B When heated above body temperature
C When in sustained contact with bare skin
D When ingested
Correct Answer: D When ingested
Explanation: Ingesting lead is highly dangerous.
34. After cutting your finger on site, you treat yourself using gauze pads and medical tape from the first aid kit. What must you do? Give ONE answer
A Inform the person in charge of managing the kit that you have used supplies
B Make sure everything has been neatly put back in place
C Restock the items you have used from the kit
D Use spray disinfectant to clean anything inside that you have touched
Correct Answer: A Inform the person in charge of managing the kit that you have used supplies
Explanation: The person managing the first aid equipment must always be informed if it has been used.
35. After cutting your finger on site, you find there are no dressings in the first aid kit. What should you do? Give ONE answer
A Inform the person who manages the kit
B Nothing - the person in charge of managing it will be aware
C Report it in the accident book
D Restock the kit at the next opportunity
Correct Answer: A Inform the person who manages the kit
Explanation: If you notice the first-aid kit is not properly restocked, you must inform the person in charge of managing it.
36. A piece of equipment you are using appears to be dangerous, and you want to check the accident book for any prior incidents it may have been involved with. Is this permissible? Give ONE answer
A No - accident books must be kept confidential by your employers
B Yes - you are legally permitted to access safety records relevant to your on-site tasks
Correct Answer: A No - accident books must be kept confidential by your employers
Explanation: The accident book must be kept confidential.
37. How will you know if you are developing occupational dermatitis? Give ONE answer
A You will begin to lose manual dexterity
B Your face will begin to feel puffy, and you may suffer bouts of dizziness
C Your hands may begin to show redness, cracking, and itching
D Your hands will begin to swell
Correct Answer: C Your hands may begin to show redness, cracking, and itching
Explanation: Occupational dermatitis may begin to exhibit through redness, cracking, and itching in the hands.
38. Why is it important to treat allergic contact dermatitis as soon as it appears? Give ONE answer
A It may become carcinogenic
B It may become gangrenous
C It may develop into septic ulcers
D It may spread to internal organs
Correct Answer: C It may develop into septic ulcers
Explanation: Contact dermatitis can develop into painful ulcers.
39. Which of the following best describes tetanus? Give ONE answer
A A bacterial disease that affects the cardiovascular system
B A bacterial disease that affects the nervous system
C A bacterial infection that affects the skin
D A viral infection that affects the nervous system
Correct Answer: B A bacterial disease that affects the nervous system
Explanation: Tetanus affects the nervous system. It is a bacterial disease.
40. Which of the following situation might put you at risk of contracting legionella? Give ONE answer
A You are cutting lengths of timber
B You are fitting attic insulation
C You are fixing air conditioning
D You are laying concrete
Correct Answer: C You are fixing air conditioning
Explanation: Legionella is contracted when a person breathes in vapour or mist from contaminated water.
41. What is your employer's responsibility if you begin to exhibit signs of worsening mental health? Give ONE answer
A Nothing - they are at liberty to terminate your employment
B They should begin health surveillance
C They should help you access the support you need
D They should inform your team of your condition
Correct Answer: C They should help you access the support you need
Explanation: Your employer should confidentially offer you the support you need.
42. What should be the main concern on site if workers become fatigued? Give ONE answer
A Site cleanliness and hygiene will suffer
B Staff morale drops
C The number of resignations may increase
D The risk of accidents increases
Correct Answer: D The risk of accidents increases
Explanation: Fatigued workers are more likely to have accidents.
43. Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by manual handling? Give ONE answer
A Back injury
B Cancer
C Hernia
D Rupture
Correct Answer: B Cancer
Explanation: Various injuries can result from manual handling, but diseases are uncommon.
44. What is ONE thing you can do outside of work to help protect yourself from manual handling injuries? Give ONE answer
A Have a carbohydrate-rich diet
B Sleep on your side
C Wear a neck brace
D Work on cultivating good posture
Correct Answer: D Work on cultivating good posture
Explanation: Good posture at all times will help protect you against injury.
45. Which TWO of the following factors will affect a safe system of work for manual handling? Give TWO answers
A If the load is dispensable
B If the load is expensive
C If the load is greasy
D If the load is hazardous
E If the load is urgently needed
Correct Answer: C If the load is greasy, D If the load is hazardous
Explanation: A safe system of work is designed to protect the safety of workers, not the cost or efficiency of a project.
46. When should lifting aids be used? Give ONE answer
A When the load is a hazardous material
B When there are not enough workers on hand to handle the load manually
C When there is reduced visibility
D Whenever possible, to reduce the risk of injury
Correct Answer: D Whenever possible, to reduce the risk of injury
Explanation: Lifting aids should be used whenever possible.
47. What is this sign? Give ONE answer
A Sign prohibiting naked flames
B Warning sign for fires in the vicinity
C Warning sign for flammable material
D Warning sign for waste being burned
Correct Answer: C Warning sign for flammable material
Explanation: This is a warning sign for flammable materials.
48. What does this sign signal? Give ONE answer
A Area being ventilated
B Poorly ventilated area
C Radioactive material
D Toxic substances
Correct Answer: C Radioactive material
Explanation: This sign is used for radioactive material.
49. When are you permitted to enter an exclusion zone on a site where a lift is taking place? Give ONE answer
A Only if there is no threat to your safety
B Only if you are wearing high visibility clothing
C Only with the permission of the lift supervisor
D You must never enter an exclusion zone
Correct Answer: C Only with the permission of the lift supervisor
Explanation: You may only enter an exclusion zone with the permission of the lift supervisor.
50. What must a vehicle marshaller know before they can safely begin work? Give ONE answer
A The correct signals, and any relevant safety information
B The details of the operator they will be directing
C The make and model of the vehicle they are directing
D The nearest evacuation route
Correct Answer: A The correct signals, and any relevant safety information
Explanation: Vehicle marshallers must know the correct signals, and any additional safety procedures.